Re: Hairpin.to-barline doesn't always work

[Thomas Morley]

2018-07-21 5:08 GMT+02:00 Patrick Karl <address@hidden>:

> The to-barline property

> I have a couple of questions about this section.  The first is, why would
> the default setting for to-barface be true?

Afaik, we do so to follow the usual type-setting-rules.
I could be wrong here, though. I don't own Gould

> If I wanted my spanner to end
> on the immediately preceding bar line, I could easily set "\!" after the
> last note of the preceding bar.

Nope.  See the output of

{
  c'1\> d'\!
  \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
  c'1\> d'\!
}

{
  c'2\> c'\! d'1
  \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
  c'2\> c' d'1\!
}


>
> The second question has to do with the following two examples:
>
> \version "2.19.81"
> {  \time 1/4
>     a8\> b
>     \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##f
>     c'4\! }
> {  \time 1/4
>     a8\> b
>     \override Hairpin.to-barline = ##t
>     c'4\! }
>
>
> Both examples give identical output, i.e., the hairpin ends before the first
> barline, not extending to the first note of the second bar no matter what
> the setting of Hairpin.to-barline is.
>
>
> How can I extend the hairpin to the end of the note in the 2nd bar?

Overiding something needs to be done before this "something" has started.
Pierre already demonstrated how to do it.

>
> Please answer both questions.  Why would the default be so
> counter-intuitive?

I disagree. Why is it counter-intuitive? Can't follow.

Cheers,
  Harm