Re: Possessive apostrophe with singular nouns ending in "s"

[Stephen J. Turnbull]

Deniz Dogan writes:

 > What does grammar say?  Is it a corner-case?  Does it differ depending 
 > on locale?

Early-to-mid 1900s grammar says without any self-critical doubt
whatsoever that for a singular noun ending in "s" the possessive is
formed by adding "'s".

Before and after grammar says either is OK, with after grammar having
a footnote saying that early-to-mid-1900s grammarians were fascist
usurpers of the people's right to determine their own language, as
evidenced by the usage of before grammar.  Before grammar has no
footnotes referring to after grammar, though.

With-tongue-firmly-in-cheeks's-ly y'rs,

P.S. Personally I favor "Emacs's".