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Re: Should mode commands be idempotent?

From: John Wiegley
Subject: Re: Should mode commands be idempotent?
Date: Mon, 25 Sep 2017 20:30:17 -0700
User-agent: Gnus/5.130016 (Ma Gnus v0.16) Emacs/26.0 (darwin)

>>>>> "SM" == Stefan Monnier <address@hidden> writes:

SM> It seems the general consensus in this discussion is that it might indeed
SM> be a good convention. Since you disagree, maybe you could give us some
SM> concrete arguments about why it might be desirable for a minor/major mode
SM> to be non-idempotent.

FWIW, I can't off the top of my head think of a reason why (foo-mode 1)
followed by (foo-mode 1) should do something different than just calling it

John Wiegley                  GPG fingerprint = 4710 CF98 AF9B 327B B80F
http://newartisans.com                          60E1 46C4 BD1A 7AC1 4BA2

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