...does that mean that I SHOULD NOT divide by anything?
Put another way: should I just calculate the force as the derivative (with respect to theta) of the angular potential, without scaling factor, UNLIKE what I do with linear potentials?
Maybe this is the solution. In this way, the potential would be purely angular, that is, already independent of distance.
Thanks in advance,
---------- Forwarded message ----------
From: Paul Peterson <address@hidden>
Date: 2015-07-22 11:38 GMT+02:00
Subject: Re: [ESPResSo-users] Scaling of tabulated angular potentials
To: Rudolf Weeber <address@hidden
Cc: ESPResSo Users <address@hidden
thanks for your reply.
Your reasoning makes perfect sense, but the point is: when I define the tabulated angle potential I don't know what the distance (radius) will be. So what 1/r should I scale by?