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RE: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?
From: |
Drew Adams |
Subject: |
RE: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'? |
Date: |
Sun, 9 Aug 2015 09:38:38 -0700 (PDT) |
> Do I get it right that for two symbols to be `eq' it is enough for
> them to have the same name and to be interned in the same obarray?
Yes. Symbols are uniquely named in an obarray - there is only
one interned symbol with any given name. That's why `intern' and
`intern-soft' work, to give you _the_ symbol with the given name.
Note that you can create any number of uninterned symbols with
the same name, just as you can create different symbols with
the same name but interned in different obarrays.
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Joost Kremers, 2015/08/08
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Ian Zimmerman, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Marcin Borkowski, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Michael Heerdegen, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Marcin Borkowski, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Eli Zaretskii, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Marcin Borkowski, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Eli Zaretskii, 2015/08/09
- Re: Are two symbols `equal' iff they are `eq'?, Marcin Borkowski, 2015/08/09