RE: is it problematic to "call" a non-existent define?

[Dave Korn]

On 21 December 2007 21:55, Robert P. J. Day wrote:

>   is there any problem with invoking $(call fred) if "fred" hasn't
> been defined?  that is, is "call" defined to just quietly pass over
> that and keep going?  thanks.

  No problem at all, and yes, if you call an undefined variable, it expands to
nothing - which of course is then unchanged by applying the arguments since it
doesn't contain any $(1) etc.  You'll get a warning message if you've used
"--warn-undefined-variables" on the command line.

    cheers,
      DaveK
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