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Re: Should let symbols be interned?

From: Juanma Barranquero
Subject: Re: Should let symbols be interned?
Date: Mon, 22 Jan 2007 01:08:30 +0100

On 1/22/07, Lennart Borgman (gmail) <address@hidden> wrote:

However the real question was of course if the same obarray is used for
symbols created by let variable declarations (did I get everything right
now?;-) as for symbols created by "defvar" variables.

 (defvar my-sym t)
 (put 'my-sym 'my-prop t)
 (let (my-sym)
   (message "symbol: %S -- property: %S" my-sym (get 'my-sym 'my-prop))))

=> "symbol: nil -- property: t"

If `let' interned a new symbol in another obarray, the above would
answer: "symbol: nil -- property: nil". That would be very surprising.
A function call at arbitrary deep doesn't usually care whether a
symbol it's using was let-bound or not, only its value and other
properties. `let' is not advertised as binding anything other than a
symbol's value...


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