Re: moving point over invisible and intangible text

[Luc Teirlinck]

Miles Bader wrote:

   On the face of it, it seems obvious -- move to column COL, as if all
   invisible text had been deleted, and then put back after the move.  Is
   there any subtlety above that?!?

Go back to the concrete example:

line1
line2
line3
line4

We make line2, including trailing newline, invisible.  We put point at
the end of line3 and do (line-move-to-column 0).  We follow your
procedure, delete line2, newline and all, and move point to the
beginning of the resulting line.  Then we put the invisible text back.
If we put it back before point, point winds up at the beginning of line3,
which is the actual behavior if the invisible text is not intangible.
If we put it back after point, point winds up at the beginning of
line2, the actual behavior if the invisible text is intangible.
Maybe there is some reason why this dependence on intangibility is
somehow "obvious", but I can not immediately see it.

Sincerely,

Luc.